[2018 Jan. New] Most Important Cisco 600-510 Dumps NPDEV Exam Developing with Network Programmability Certification Try Free Youtube Training 112Q Offer(61-86)

How to get free Cisco 600-510 dumps? VCE dumps and PDF dumps. The Developing with Network Programmability (600-510 NPDEV) exam is a 112 questions assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the Cisco Network Programmability Developer Specialist certification. Pass4itsure’s Cisco 600-510 dumps exam are highly targeted. Most important Cisco 600-510 dumps NPDEV exam Developing with Network Programmability Certification try free Youtube training. “Developing with Network Programmability” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 600-510 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 600-510 exam. It includes questions and ansPass4itsurers, and issimilar with the dumps questions. This really can be called the best training materials. Pass4itsure’s Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/600-510.html dumps pdf are the necessities of each of candidates who participating in the IT certification. So that you will have the confidence to win the dumps. Not every training materials on the Internet have such high quality. Only Pass4itsure could be so perfect.

[2018 Jan. New Cisco 600-510 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWYWRscjhnOVZ6a3M

[2018 Jan. New Cisco 600-512 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWWEpQOEp4Yng2NG8
600-510 dumps
Following Cisco 600-510 Dumps 112QAs are all new published by Pass4itsure:
QUESTION 61
A new regulation for safeguarding information processed by a specific type of transaction has come to the attention of an information security officer. The officer should FIRST:
A. meet with stakeholders to decide how to comply.
B. analyze key risks in the compliance process.
C. assess whether existing controls meet the regulation.
D. update the existing security/privacy policy.
600-510 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If the organization is in compliance through existing controls, the need to perform other work related to the regulation is not a priority. The other choices are appropriate and important; however, they are actions that are subsequent and will depend on whether there is an existing control gap.
QUESTION 62
The PRIMARY objective of a security steering group is to:
A. ensure information security covers all business functions.
B. ensure information security aligns with business goals.
C. raise information security awareness across the organization.
D. implement all decisions on security management across the organization.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The security steering group comprises senior management of key business functions and has the primary objective to align the security strategy with the business direction. Option A is incorrect because all business areas may not be required to be covered by information security; but, if they do, the main purpose of the steering committee would be alignment more so than coverage. While raising awareness is important, this goal would not be carried out by the committee itself. The steering committee may delegate part of the decision making to the information security manager; however, if it retains this authority, it is not the primary’ goal.
QUESTION 63
Data owners must provide a safe and secure environment to ensure confidentiality, integrity and availability of the transaction. This is an example of an information security:
A. baseline.
B. strategy.
C. procedure.
D. policy.
600-510 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A policy is a high-level statement of an organization’s beliefs, goals, roles and objectives. Baselines assume a minimum security level throughout an organization. The information security strategy aligns the information security program with business objectives rather than making control statements. A procedure is a step-by-step process of how policy and standards will be implemented.
QUESTION 64
At what stage of the applications development process should the security department initially become involved?
A. When requested
B. At testing
C. At programming
D. At detail requirements
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Information security has to be integrated into the requirements of the application’s design. It should also be part of the information security governance of the organization. The application owner may not make a timely request for security involvement. It is too late during systems testing, since the requirements have already been agreed upon. Code reviews are part of the final quality assurance process.
QUESTION 65
A security manager is preparing a report to obtain the commitment of executive management to a security program. Inclusion of which of the following would be of MOST value?
A. Examples of genuine incidents at similar organizations
B. Statement of generally accepted best practices
C. Associating realistic threats to corporate objectives
D. Analysis of current technological exposures
600-510 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Linking realistic threats to key business objectives will direct executive attention to them. All other options are supportive but not of as great a value as choice C when trying to obtain the funds for a new program.
QUESTION 66
The PRIMARY concern of an information security manager documenting a formal data retention policy would be:
A. generally accepted industry best practices.
B. business requirements.
C. legislative and regulatory requirements.
D. storage availability.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The primary concern will be to comply with legislation and regulation but only if this is a genuine business requirement. Best practices may be a useful guide but not a primary concern. Legislative and regulatory requirements are only relevant if compliance is a business need. Storage is irrelevant since whatever is needed must be provided
QUESTION 67
When personal information is transmitted across networks, there MUST be adequate controls over:
A. change management.
B. privacy protection.

C. consent to data transfer.
D. encryption devices.
600-510 vce 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Privacy protection is necessary to ensure that the receiving party has the appropriate level of protection of personal data. Change management primarily protects only the information, not the privacy of the individuals. Consent is one of the protections that is frequently, but not always, required. Encryption is a method of achieving the actual control, but controls over the devices may not ensure adequate privacy protection and. therefore, is a partial answer.
QUESTION 68
An organization’s information security processes are currently defined as ad hoc. In seeking to improve their performance level, the next step for the organization should be to:
A. ensure that security processes are consistent across the organization.
B. enforce baseline security levels across the organization.
C. ensure that security processes are fully documented.
D. implement monitoring of key performance indicators for security processes.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The organization first needs to move from ad hoc to repeatable processes. The organization then needs to document the processes and implement process monitoring and measurement. Baselining security levels will not necessarily assist in process improvement since baselining focuses primarily on control improvement. The organization needs to standardize processes both before documentation, and before monitoring and measurement.
QUESTION 69
Who in an organization has the responsibility for classifying information?
A. Data custodian
B. Database administrator
C. Information security officer
D. Data owner
600-510 exam 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The data owner has full responsibility over data. The data custodian is responsible for securing the information. The database administrator carries out the technical administration. The information security officer oversees the overall classification management of the information.
QUESTION 70
What is the PRIMARY role of the information security manager in the process of information classification within an organization?
A. Defining and ratifying the classification structure of information assets
B. Deciding the classification levels applied to the organization’s information assets
C. Securing information assets in accordance with their classification
D. Checking if information assets have been classified properly

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Defining and ratifying the classification structure of information assets is the primary role of the information security manager in the process of information classification within the organization. Choice B is incorrect because the final responsibility for deciding the classification levels rests with the data owners. Choice C is incorrect because the job of securing information assets is the responsibility of the data custodians. Choice D may be a role of an information security manager but is not the key role in this context.
QUESTION 71
Logging is an example of which type of defense against systems compromise?
A. Containment
B. Detection
C. Reaction
D. Recovery
600-510 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Detection defenses include logging as well as monitoring, measuring, auditing, detecting viruses and intrusion. Examples of containment defenses are awareness, training and physical security defenses. Examples of reaction defenses are incident response, policy and procedure change, and control enhancement. Examples of recovery defenses are backups and restorations, failover and remote sites, and business continuity plans and disaster recovery plans.
QUESTION 72
Which of the following is MOST important in developing a security strategy?
A. Creating a positive business security environment
B. Understanding key business objectives
C. Having a reporting line to senior management
D. Allocating sufficient resources to information security
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Alignment with business strategy is of utmost importance. Understanding business objectives is critical in determining the security needs of the organization.

QUESTION 73
Who is ultimately responsible for the organization’s information?
A. Data custodian
B. Chief information security officer (CISO)
C. Board of directors
D. Chief information officer (CIO)
600-510 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The board of directors is ultimately responsible for the organization’s information and is tasked with 
responding to issues that affect its protection. The data custodian is responsible for the maintenance and protection of data. This role is usually filled by the IT department. The chief information security officer (CISO) is responsible for security and carrying out senior management’s directives. The chief information officer (CIO) is responsible for information technology within the organization and is not ultimately responsible for the organization’s information.
QUESTION 74
Your network administrator has asked you to view the real-time interface usage on ge-0/0/0.
Which command would be used?
A. monitor interface ge-0/0/0
B. traceoptions interface ge-0/0/0
C. debug interface ge-0/0/0
D. monitor usage ge-0/0/0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Which command do you use to show active alarms?
A. show hardware state
B. show system alarms
C. show chassis state
D. show services alarms
600-510 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Which statement is true about the routing table?
A. The routing table exists in the control plane only.
B. The routing table exists in the control plane and in the forwarding plane.
C. The routing table contains both active and inactive routes.
D. The routing table is stored on compact flash.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 77
What is the default route preference value for EBGP?
A. 20
B. 100

C. 170
D. 200
600-510 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
What are three benefits of class of service? (Choose three.)
A. It can make a slow network faster.
B. It can prioritize latency-sensitive traffic.
C. It can eliminate congestion.
D. It can control congestion.
E. It can allocate bandwidth for different classes of traffic.
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 79
Which two statements are true regarding trace options on Junos devices? (Choose two.)
A. You can see the contents of the log file by entering the show log <filename> command.
B. Trace options will send information to your screen automatically.
C. Trace options are limited to one protocol at a time.
D. The file name and a set of flags may be specified when enabling traceoptions.
600-510 dumps 
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 80
What is the default protocol preference for OSPF internal routes?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 150
D. 160
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 81
Which two commands would you use to view OSPF routes? (Choose two.)
A. show ip route ospf
B. show ospf routes
C. show route protocol ospf
D. show route
600-510 pdf 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 82
By default, which character indicates the UNIX shell prompt?
A. #
B. >
C. $
D. %
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 83
How do you save the current candidate configuration in the set format to permanent storage media?
A. [edit] [email protected]# show | set | save /var/tmp/current.conf
B. [edit] [email protected]# show | compare set | save /var/tmp/current.conf
C. [edit] [email protected]# save /var/tmp/current.conf | display set
D. [edit] [email protected]ter# show | display set | save /var/tmp/current.conf
600-510 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
You have been asked to use a 23-bit network mask to segment the network block 209.18.12.0. How many usable host addresses will there be per subnet?
A. 510
B. 1022
C. 2046
D. 8190
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 85
Using the command, [email protected]# load override latest.conf, where in the file system will the latest.conf be located?
A. /var/home/user/
B. /var/config/saved/
C. /var/tmp/
D. /config/
600-510 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Which class-of-service component allows you to define the bandwidth allocated to different traffic types?
A. classification
B. rewrite marking
C. scheduling
D. queuing
Correct Answer: C
600-510 dumps

Everyone has their own life planning. Different selects will have different acquisition. So the choice is important. Pass4itsure’s Cisco 600-510 dumps pdf are the best things to help each IT worker to achieve the ambitious goal of his life. “Developing with Network Programmability”, also known as 600-510 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. With this training material, you can do a full dumps preparation. Pass4itsure Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/600-510.html dumps exam questions answers are updated (112 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 600-510 dumps is Cisco Network Programmability Developer Specialist.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/2-H9nPQ_1Mw